SSC JHT Recruitment 2022: Exam Dates, Exam Pattern, Cut-offs, Salary etc.
SSC JHT 2022 exam is conducted by Staff Selection Commission for the recruitment of Junior Hindi Translator (JHT), Junior Translator, Senior Hindi Translator etc. in various government departments/ministries.
SSC is soon going to release the SSC JHT 2022 notification in coming days. The recruitment process of SSC JHT exam is conducted in 2 stages viz., Paper I (Computer-based) and Paper II (Descriptive).
Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator and Senior Hindi Translator Examination, 2022:-
Dates for submission of online applications |
20.07.2022 to 04.08.2022 |
Last date and time for receipt of online applications |
04.08.2022 (2300 hours) |
Last date and time for generation of offline Challan |
04.08.2022 (2300 hours) |
Last date and time for making online fee payment |
05.08.2022 (2300 hours) |
Last date for payment through Challan (during Working hours of Bank) |
05.08.2022 |
Date of ‘Window for Application Form Correction’and online payment of Correction Charges. |
06.08.2022 (2300 hours) |
Schedule of Computer Based Examination |
October, 2022 |
File No. HQ-PPII03(4)/1/2022-PP_II:- The Staff Selection Commission will hold an open competitive examination for recruitment of Group ‘B’ Non-Gazetted posts of Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator and Senior Hindi Translator for various Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations in the Government of India. The details of various posts are as under:
Code |
Name of the post |
Pay scale |
A |
Junior Translator in Central Secretariat Official Language Service (CSOLS) |
Level-6 (Rs.35400- 112400) |
B |
Junior Translator in M/o Railways (Railway Board) |
Level-6 (Rs.35400- 112400) |
C |
Junior Translator in Armed Forces Headquarters (AFHQ) |
Level-6 (Rs.35400- 112400) |
D |
Junior Translator (JT)/ Junior Hindi Translator (JHT) in subordinate offices who have adopted Model RRs of DoP&T for JT/JHT |
Level-6 (Rs.35400- 112400) |
E |
Senior Hindi Translator in various Central Government Ministries/Departments/Offices |
Level-7 (Rs.44900- 142400) |
2. Vacancies: Vacancies will be determined in due course. Updated vacancy position will be uploaded on the website of the Commission from time to time (https://ssc.nic.in >Candidate’s Corner > Tentative Vacancy)
3. Reservation:
3.1 Reservation for Scheduled Castes (SC)/Scheduled Tribes (ST)/Other Backward Classes (OBC)/Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and Persons with Disabilities (PwD) etc would be as determined and communicated by the Indenting Ministries/Departments/ Offices as per extant to Government Orders.
3.2 The Commission makes selection of candidates in pursuant to the vacancies reported by the concerned User Departments for various posts. The Commission does not have any role in deciding the number of vacancies of any User Department. Implementation of reservation policy, maintaining reservation roster and earmarking of vacancies for different categories comes under the domain of the User Departments.
4. Permissible disabilities for PwD candidates:
4.1 Except for the Border Roads Organization (BRO), the posts have been identified suitable for following disabilities, which is as per Notification No. 38-16/2020-DDIII dated 04.01.2021 issued by Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), M/o Social Justice and Empowerment:
S. No |
Name of Post |
Functional Requirement |
Suitable Category of Benchmark Disability |
1 |
Senior Hindi Translator |
S, ST, W, BN, RW,SE, H, C |
a) B, LV b) D, HH c) OA, OL, BL, OAL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV d) ASD, SLD, MI e) MD involving (a) to (d) above |
2 |
Junior Hindi Translator/Junior Translator |
S, ST, W,RW, SE, H, C |
a) B, LV b) D, HH c) OA, OL, BL, OAL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV, MDy d) ASD (M), SLD, MI e) MD Involving (a) to (d) above
|
Abbreviation used:
FUNCTIONAL REQUIREMENT: S=Sitting, ST=Standing, W=Walking, BN=Bending, RW=Reading & Writing, SE=Seeing, H=Hearing, C=Communication
NATURE OF PHYSICAL DISABILITIES: B=Blind, LV=Low Vision, D=Deaf, HH= Hard of Hearing, OA=One Arm, OL=One Leg, L=Both Leg, OAL=One Arm and One Leg, CP=Cerebral Palsy, LC=Leprosy Cured, Dw=Dwarfism, MDY= Muscular Dystrophy, AAV=Acid Attack Victims, ASD= Autism Spectrum Disorder (M= Mild, MoD= Moderate), SLD= Specific Learning Disability, MI= Mental Illness, MD=Multiple Disabilities (Including Deaf Blindness)
Note:- The suitability of posts for Persons with Benchmark Disability indicated in the above table shall be subject to exemption, if any, obtained by indenting Min/Dept.
4.2 Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Translator and Senior Hindi Translator being Group ‘B’ posts, there is no reservation for Ex-Servicemen (ESM) category. However, benefit of age- relaxation will be admissible to ESM candidates, as per extant Govt. Orders.
4.3 Requirement of Physical Standard, Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards for the posts of Junior Translators in BRO is available at Annexure-XIV. Candidates may ensure that they fulfill all the required standards before opting for the post of Junior Translator in BRO. Posts once allocated as per merit-cum-preference given by the candidates will not be changed subsequently due to failure of the candidates to qualify in these Standards.
4.4 Only male candidates are eligible for the posts of Junior Translator in the Border Roads Organization (BRO).
5 Nationality/Citizenship:
A candidate must be either:
- 5.1 A citizen of India, or
- 5.2 A subject of Nepal, or
- 5.3 A subject of Bhutan, or
- 5.4 A Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the 1st January, 1962, with the intention of permanently settling in India, or
- 5.5 A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (Formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
- 5.6 Provided that a candidate belonging to categories 5.2 to 5.5 above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.
- 5.7 A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the Examination but the offer of appointment will be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to himby the Government of India.
6 Age Limit:
- 6.1 18 to 30 years as on 01-01-2022 i.e. candidates born not before 02-01-1992 and not later than 01-01-2004 are eligible to apply.
- 6.2 Permissible relaxation of Upper age limit prescribed under para-6.1 above and Category codesfor claiming age relaxation will be as follows:
CodeNo. |
Category |
Age Relaxation permissible beyond theUpper age limit |
1 |
SC/ ST |
5 years |
2 |
OBC |
3 years |
3 |
PwD (Unreserved) |
10 years |
4 |
PwD (OBC) |
13 years |
5 |
PwD (SC/ST) |
15 years |
6 |
Ex-Servicemen (ESM) |
03 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the closing date for receipt of application. |
8 |
Defence Personnel disabled in operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a |
3 years |
consequence thereof. |
9 |
Defence Personnel disabled in operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof (SC/ ST) |
8 years |
6.3 Date of Birth filled by the candidate in the online application form and the same recorded
in the Matriculation/ Secondary Examination Certificate will be accepted by the
Commission for determining the age and no subsequent request for change will be
considered or granted.
6.4 The period of "Call up Service" of an Ex-Serviceman in the Armed Forces shall also be treatedas service rendered in the Armed Forces for purpose of age relaxation as per rules.
6.5 For any serviceman of the three Armed Forces of the Union to be treated as ExServiceman for the purpose of securing the benefits of reservation/age-relaxation, he must have already acquired, at the relevant time of submitting his application for the Post/ Service the status of Ex-Servicemen or is in a position to establish his acquired entitlement by documentary evidence from the competent authority that he would complete specified term of engagement from the Armed Forces within the stipulated period of one year from the closing date for receipt of applications (i.e. 04.08.2022). Such candidates must also acquire the status of an Ex-Serviceman within the stipulated period of one year from the closing date of receipt of application.
6.6 Explanation: An Ex-Serviceman means a person:
6.6.1 Who has served in any rank whether as a combatant or non combatant in the Regular Army, Navy or Air Force of the Indian Union, and i. who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension; or ii. who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds attributable to military service or circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; or iii. who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; or
6.6.2 who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement, otherwise than at his own request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a gratuity, and includes personnelof the Territorial Army, namely, pension holders for continuous embodies service or broken spells of qualifying service; or
6.6.3 personnel of the Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and retired from theArmy Postal Service without reversion to their parent service with pension, or are released from the Army Postal service on medical grounds attributable to or aggravated by military service or circumstance beyond their control and awarded medical or other disability pension; or
6.6.4 Personnel, who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than six months priorto the 14th April, 1987; or
6.6.5 Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of Territorial Army; or
6.6.6 Ex-recruits boarded out or relieved on medical ground and granted medical disability pension.
6.7 Age relaxation is not admissible to sons, daughters and dependents of ExServicemen. Therefore, such candidates should not indicate their category as exservicemen.
7 Process of certification and format of certificates:
7.1 Candidates who wish to be considered against vacancies reserved or seek age-relaxation must submit requisite certificate from the competent authority, in the prescribed format, whenever such certificates are sought by concerned Regional/ Sub-Regional Offices at the time of Document Verification. Otherwise, their claim for SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS/ PwD/ ESM, etc will not be entertained and their candidature/ applications will be considered under Unreserved (UR) category. The formats of the certificates are annexed with the Notice of Examination. The certificate of disability issued under the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 (1 of 1996) will also be valid. Certificates in any other format are liable to be rejected.
7.2 A person seeking appointment on the basis of reservation to OBCs must ensure that he/she possesses the caste/community certificate and does not fall in creamy layer on the crucial date. The crucial date for this purpose will be the closing date for receipt of online application; i.e.,04.08.2022.
7.3 Candidates may also note that in respect of the above, their candidature will remain provisional till the veracity of the concerned document is verified by the Appointing Authority. Candidates are cautioned that they will be debarred from the examination conducted by the Commission in case they fraudulently claim SC/ST/OBC/EWS/ESM/PwD status.
7.4 Crucial date for claim of SC/ ST/ OBC/ EWS/ ESM/ PwD status or any other benefit viz. fee concession, reservation, age-relaxation, etc, where not specified otherwise, will be the closing date for receipt of online applications; i.e., 04.08.2022.
8 Provision of Compensatory Time and assistanceofscribe:
8.1 In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness and locomotor disability (both arms affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe is provided, if desired by the candidate. Since the posts are not identified suitable for persons with BA disabilities, therefore facility of scribe will not be admissible to such candidates.
8.2 For the remaining persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of scribe will be available onproduction of a certificate to the effect that the person concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his/ her behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government health care institution as per proforma at Annexure-I.
8.3 The facility of scribes/passage reader will be provided to the PwD candidates only if he/she has opted for the same in the online application form.
8.4 The candidate will have the discretion of opting for his/ her own scribe or the facility of scribeprovided by the Commission. Appropriate choice in this regard will have to be given by the candidate in the online application form.
8.5 In case the candidate opts for own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking the examination and also, the scribe should not be a candidate of this examination. The candidates with benchmark disabilities opting for own scribe shall be required to submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at Annexure-II. In addition, the scribe has to produce a valid ID proof (as per list given at para-15.7) in original at the time of examination. A photocopy of the ID proof of the scribe signed by the candidate as well as the scribe will be submitted along with proforma at Annexure-II. If subsequently it is found that the qualification of the scribe is not as declared by the candidate, then the candidate shall forfeit his/her right to the post and claims relating thereto.
8.6 Own scribe should not be a candidate of this examination. If a candidate is detected as assisting another PwD candidate as scribe in this examination, then the candidatures of both the candidates will be cancelled.
8.7 A compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination will be provided to the persons whoare allowed use ofscribe as described at Para 8.1 and 8.2 above.
8.8 The candidates referred at Para
8.1 and 8.2 who are eligible for use of scribe but not availing the facility of scribe will also be given compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination.
8.9 No attendant other than the scribe for eligible candidates will be allowed inside the examination hall.
8.10 One eyed candidates and partially blind candidates who are able to read the normal Question Paper set with or without magnifying glass and who wish to write/ indicate the answer with the help of magnifying glass will be allowed to use the same in the Examination Hall and will not be entitled to a Scribe. Such candidates will have to bring their own magnifying glass to the Examination Hall.
8.11 The PwD candidates who have availed the facility of Scribes/ Passage Reader and/ or compensatory time must produce relevant documents for the eligibility of scribe/ compensatory time at the time of Document Verification. Failure to produce such supporting documents will lead to cancellation of their candidature for the examination.
9 Essential Educational Qualifications (As on 04.08.2022):
9.1 For post codes ‘A’ to ‘D’(Junior Hindi Translator/Junior Translator in various Central Government Ministries/Departments / Offices)::
Master’s degree of a recognized University in Hindi with English as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of examination at the degree level; or Master’s degree of a recognized University in English with Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of examination at the degree level; or Master’s degree of a recognized University in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi medium and English as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of a examination at the degree level; or Master’s degree of a recognized University in any subject other than Hindi or English, with English medium and Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of examination at the degree level; or Master’s Degree of a recognized University in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi and English as compulsory or elective subjects or either of the two as a medium of examination and the other as a compulsory or elective subject at degree level and Recognized Diploma or Certificate course in translation from Hindi to English & viceversa or two years‟ experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice versa in Central or State Government Office, including Government of India Undertaking.
9.2 For post codes ‘E’ (Senior Hindi Translator in various Central Government Ministries/Departments/Offices):
Master’s degree of a recognized University in English with Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of examination at the degree level;
or
Master’s degree of a recognized University in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi medium and English as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of a examination at the degree level;
or
Master’s degree of a recognized University in any subject other than Hindi or English, with English medium and Hindi as a compulsory or elective subject or as the medium of examination at the degree level;
or
Master’s Degree of a recognized University in any subject other than Hindi or English, with Hindi and English as compulsory or elective subjects or either of the two as a medium of examination and the other as a compulsory or elective subject at degree level
or
Recognized Diploma or Certificate course in translation from Hindi to English & vice versa or three years‟ experience of translation work from Hindi to English and vice versa in Central or State Government Office, including Government of India Undertaking.
91 The candidates must possess Essential Qualification on or before the closing date for receipt of online applications; i.e., 04.08.2022.
9.2 As per Ministry of Human Resource Development Notification dated 10.06.2015 publishedin the Gazette of India all the degrees/ diplomas/ certificates awarded through Open and Distance Learning mode of education by the Universities established by an Act of Parliamentor State Legislature, Institutions Deemed to be Universities under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 and Institutions of National Importance declared under an Act of Parliament stand automatically recognized for the purpose of employment to posts and servicesunder the Central Government provided they have been approved by the Distance Education Bureau, University Grants Commission. Accordingly, unless such degrees are recognized for the relevant period when the candidates acquired the qualification, they will not be accepted for the purpose of Educational Qualification.
93 As per UGC (Open and Distance Learning) Regulations, 2017 published in official Gazette on 23-06-2017, under Part-III (8) (v), the programmes in engineering, medicine, dental, nursing, pharmacy, architecture and physiotherapy etc are not permitted to be offered under Open and Distance Learning mode. However, pursuant to the Hon’ble Supreme Court Order dated 11-03-2019 in MA No. 3092/2018 in W.P. (C) No. 382/2018 titled Mukul Kumar Sharma & others Vs AICTE and others, B. Tech. degree/ diploma in Engineering awarded by IGNOU to the students who were enrolled up to academic year 2009-10 shall be treated as valid, wherever applicable.
9.4 All candidates who are declared qualified by the Commission in Computer Base Examination will be required to produce all relevant Certificates in original such as Mark sheets/Provisional Degree/Diploma Certificate as proof of having acquired the minimum educational qualification on or before 04.08.2022 failing which the candidature of such candidates will be cancelled by the Commission. The candidates who are able to prove, by documentary evidence that the result of the qualifying examination was declared on or beforethe cut-off date and he/ she has been declared passed, will also be considered to have the required Educational Qualification. It is reiterated that the result of requisite educational qualification must have been declared by the Board/University by the specified date. Mere processing of the result by the Board/University by the crucial cut-off date does not fulfill the EQ requirement.
5 How to apply: 5.1 Applications must be submitted in only online mode at the official website of SSC Headquarters i.e.
https://ssc.nic.in. For detailed instructions, please refer to Annexure- III and Annexure-IV of this Notice. Sample Proforma of One-time Registration and online Application Forms are attached as Annexure-IIIA and Annexure-IVA.
5.2 In the online Application Form, candidates are required to upload the scanned colour passport size photograph in JPEG format (20 KB to 50 KB). The photograph should not be more than three months old from the date of publication of the Notice of Examination. Image dimension of the photograph should be about 3.5 cm (width) x 4.5 cm (height). The photograph should be without cap and spectacles.
5.3 If the proper photograph is not uploaded by a candidate, his/her candidature will be cancelled. Specimen of photographs which are acceptable/ not acceptable is given at Annexure-XV.
5.4 Last date and time for submission of online applications is 04.08.2022 (2300 hrs).
5.5 Candidates are advised in their own interest to submit online applications much before the closing date and not to wait till the last date to avoid the possibility of disconnection/ inability or failure to login to the SSC website on account of heavy load on the website during the closing days.
5.6 The Commission will not be responsible for the candidates not being able to submit their applications within the last date on account of the aforesaid reasons or for any other reason beyond the control of the Commission.
5.7 Before submission of the online application, candidates must check that they have filled correct details in each field of the form.
6 Application Fee:
6.1 Fee payable: Rs 100/- (Rs one hundred only).
6.2 Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), Persons with Disability (PwD) and Ex-Servicemen (ESM) eligible for reservation are exempted from payment of fee.
6.3 Fee can be paid through BHIM UPI, Net Banking or by using Visa, mastercard, Maestro, RuPay Credit or Debit card or in cash at SBI Branches by generating SBI Challan.
6.4 Online fee can be paid by the candidates up to 05.08.2022 (2300 Hours). However, candidates who wish to make the cash payment through challan of SBI, may make the payment in cash at the Branches of SBI within the working hours of bank up to 05.08.2022 provided the challan has been generated by them on or before 04.08.2022 (2300 Hours).
6.5 Online fee can be paid by the candidates up to 05.08.2022 (2300 Hours).
6.6 Applications received without the prescribed fee shall not be considered and summarily rejected.No representation against such rejection will be entertained.
6.7 Candidates who are not exempted from fee payment must ensure that their fee has been deposited with SSC. If the fee is not received by SSC, status of Application Form is shown ‘Incomplete’ and this information is printed on the top of the Application Form. Further, status of fee payment can be verified at the ‘Payment Status’ link provided in the candidate’s login screen. Such applications which remain incomplete due to non-receipt of fee will be SUMMARILY REJECTED and no request for consideration of such applications and fee payment after the period specified in the Notice of Examination shall be entertained.
Window for Application Form Correction [06.08.2022 (2300 hours)]:
12.1 After the closing date for receipt of online applications, the Commission will provide a period of 01 day to enable candidates to correct/ modify online application parameters, wherein candidates will be allowed to re-submit applications after making requisite corrections/changes in the one-time registration/ online application data as per their requirement.
12.2 A candidate will be allowed to correct and re-submit his modified/ corrected application two times during the ‘Window for Application Form Correction’ i.e. if he has made mistake in his updated application also, he will be allowed to re-submit one more modified/corrected application after making requisite corrections/modifications. No more corrections in the application form will be allowed under any circumstances.
12.3 Only those candidates will be allowed to make corrections in the application form, whose completed online applications along-with payment of requisite fee, have been received by the Commission within the specified period.
12.4 Latest modified application will be treated as the valid one and the previous application(s) submitted by such candidates will be cancelled.
12.5 The Commission will levy a uniform correction charges of ₹ 200/- for making correction and re-submitting modified/corrected application for the first time and ₹ 500/- for making correction and re-submitting modified/ corrected application for the second time. The correction charges will be applicable to all candidates irrespective of their gender/ category.
12.6 The correction charges can be paid only by online mode through BHIM UPI, Net Banking or by using Visa, Mastercard, Maestro, RuPay Credit or Debit cards or in cash at SBI Branches by generating SBI Challan.
12.7 The correction charges once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor will it be adjusted against any other examination or selection. 12.8 Before submission of the corrected application, candidates must check that they have filled correct details in each field of the form. After expiry of ‘Window for Application Form Correction’, no change/ correction/ modification will be allowed under any circumstances. Requests received in this regard in any form like Post, Fax, Email, by hand, etc. shall not be entertained by the Commission and will be summarily rejected.
Centres of Examination:-
A candidate must indicate the Centre(s) in the online Application Form in which he/she desires to take the examination. Details about the Examination Centres and Regional Offices under whose jurisdiction these Examination Centres are located are as follows:
S No
|
Examination Centres &
CentreCode
|
SSC Region and
States/ UTs under
thejurisdiction of the
Region
|
Address of the Regional Offices/Website
|
1
|
Bhagalpur (3201), Patna
(3206),
Purnea (3209) Agra
(3001),
Bareilly (3005),
Kanpur
(3009),
Lucknow (3010), Meerut
(3011),
Prayagraj (3003),
Varanasi (3013).
|
Central Region
(CR)/
Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
|
Regional Director
(CR), Staff Selection Commission,
34-A, Mahatma Gandhi Marg, Civil lines, Kendriya Sadan,
Prayagraj – 211001.
(http://www.ssc-cr.org)
|
2
|
Kolkata(4410), Port Blair (4802), Gangtok
(4001), Bhubaneshwar
(4604), Ranchi(4205).
|
Eastern
Region (ER)/
Andaman &
Nicobar Islands, Jharkhand, Odisha, Sikkim and
West Bengal
|
Regional Director (ER),
Staff Selection Commission,
8th Floor, 1st MSO Building, 234/4, Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose Road,
Kolkata, West Bengal- 700020
(www.sscer.org)
|
3
|
Bengaluru (9001),
Kozhikode (Calicut) (9206),
Thiruvananthpuram (9211).
|
Karnataka, Kerala Region(KKR)/ Lakshadweep, Karnataka and Kerala
|
Regional
Director (KKR), Staff Selection
Commission, 1stFloor, “E” Wing,
Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bengaluru, Karnataka-560034 (www.ssckkr.kar.nic.in)
|
4
|
Bilaspur(6202),
Durg-Bhillai (6205),
Raipur (6204),
Bhopal
(6001), Gwalior
(6005), Indore (6006),
Jabalpur (6007).
|
Madhya
Pradesh Sub-Region (MPR)/
Chhattisgarh and Madhya
Pradesh
|
Dy. Director (MPR),
Staff Selection Commission,
5th Floor, Investment Building, LIC Complex, Pandri, Raipur
Chattattisgarh-492004. (www.sscmpr.org)
|
5
|
Guwahati(Dispur) (5105), Shillong
(5401), Agartala
(5601).
|
North
Eastern Region (NER)/
Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
Nagaland and Tripura.
|
Regional Director (NER),
Staff Selection Commission, Housefed Complex, Last Gate,
Beltola-Basistha Road, P.
O. Assam Sachivalaya, Dispur, Guwahati, Assam-781006 (www.sscner.org.in)
|
6
|
Delhi(2201), Ajmer(2401), Bikaner(2404), Jaipur(2405), Jodhpur(2406), Sikar(2411), Udaipur(2409), Dehradun(2002), Haldwani(2003),
Roorkee(2006).
|
Northern Region
(NR)/
Delhi, Rajasthan and
Uttarakhand
|
Regional Director (NR),
Staff Selection Commission, Block No. 12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New
Delhi- 110003 (www.sscnr.net.in)
|
7
|
Chandigarh/Mohali (1601), Hamirpur
(1202), Shimla (1203),
Jammu (1004),
Jalandhar (1402),
Patiala (1403).
|
North Western
Sub- Region (NWR)/
Chandigarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir,
Ladakh and
Punjab
|
Dy. Director (NWR),
Staff Selection Commission, Block No. 3, Ground Floor,
Kendriy Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh- 160009 (www.sscnwr.org)
|
8
|
Chennai (8201), Hyderabad(8002), Kurnool
(8003),
Tiruchirapalli (8206)
Vishakapatnam (8007) ,
Vijayawada (8008),
Tirunelveli (8207)
|
Southern Region
(SR)/
Andhra Pradesh, Puducherry, Tamil Nadu and Telangana.
|
Regional
Director (SR), Staff Selection Commission,
2nd Floor, EVK Sampath Building, DPI Campus, CollegeRoad, Chennai, Tamil Nadu- 600006 (www.sscsr.gov.in)
|
9
|
Panaji(7801), Ahmedabad(7001), Rajkot (7006),
Amravati (7201), Mumbai(7204), Nagpur(7205), Nashik(7207), Pune
(7208).
|
Western Region (WR)/
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
and Daman and
Diu, Goa, Gujarat andMaharashtra
|
Regional
Director (WR), Staff Selection Commission,
1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishtha Bhawan, 101, Maharshi
Karve Road, Mumbai, Maharashtra-400020 (www.sscwr.net)
|
A candidate may give option for three centres, in the order of priority, within the same region. No request for change of Centre of Examination will be considered later under any circumstances. Hence, the candidates should select the centers, carefully and indicate the same correctly in their applications.
The Commission will endeavour to accommodate the candidates in centres opted by them. However, the Commission reserves the right to cancel any Centre and ask the candidates of thatcentre to appear from another centre. Commission also reserves the right to divert candidates of any centre to some other Centre to take the examination.
Scheme of Examination:
Part
|
Mode of Paper
|
Subject
|
Number of Questions/ Maximum Marks
|
Duration
|
Paper- I (Objective Type)
|
Computer Based
Mode
|
i)
General Hindi
ii)
General English
|
100/ 100
100/ 100
|
2 Hours
(2 hours and 40 minutes
for the candidates eligible for
use of scribe
as per Para 8 above)
|
Paper- II
|
Descriptive
|
Translation &
Essay
|
200
marks
|
2 Hours
(2 hours and 40 minutes
for the candidates eligible for use
of scribe as per Para 8 above)
|
Note:
• For every correct answer 1 mark shall be awarded and 0.25 marks shall be deducted for every incorrect answer.
• It is to be noted that only those candidates who qualify in Paper I will be allowed to appear in Paper II
.1 Paper-I will consist of Objective Type Multiple choice questions only.
.2 There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I. Candidates are,therefore, advised to keep this in mind while answering the question.
3 Marks scored by candidates in Computer Based Examination will be normalized by using the formula published by the Commission through Notice No: 1-1/2018-P&P-I dated 07- 02-2019 and such normalized scores will be used to determine final merit and cut-off marks.
4 Tentative Answer Keys of Paper-I will be placed on the Commission’s website after the Examination. Candidates may go through the Answer Keys and submit representations, if any, within the time limit given by the Commission through on-line modality only, on payment of Rs 100/- per question which is non refundable. Any representation regarding Answer Keys received within the time limit fixed by the Commission at the time of uploading of the Answer Keys will be scrutinized before finalizing the Answer Keys and the decision of the Commission in this regard will be final. No representation regarding Answer Keys shall be entertained later.
.5 The dates of examinations indicated in the Notice are tentative. Any change in the scheduleof examinations will be informed to the candidates only through the website of the Commission.
6 There shall be no provision for re-evaluation/ re-checking of the scores. No correspondencein this regard shall be entertained.
.7 In Paper-II, candidates must write their correct Roll Number at the prescribed places on the cover page of the Answer Book. Candidates must also affix signature and Left-hand Thumb Impression in the relevant columns in the Answer Book. Answer Books not bearing Roll Number, Signature and Left-hand Thumb Impression shall be awarded zero marks.
8 Candidates are strictly advised not to write any personal identity e.g. name, roll number, mobile number, address, etc inside the Answer Book (Paper-II) which will be taken UFM. The candidates who fail to adhere to these instructions will be awarded zero marks even if marks are awarded during the evaluation process.
Cut Offs
SSC JHT Previous Year Cutoffs
How to Check the SSC JHT 2022 Cut Off Marks?
Follow the below steps in order to check the SSC JHT 2022 cut off marks:
Step 1:Firstly, after the results are declared, click on the link uploaded on the official website https://ssc.nic.in
Step 2:You will be navigated to a new page which will display the results in pdf form.
Step 3:This PDF will be having category wise SSC Junior Hindi Translator 2022 cut off marks
Step 4:You may check the cut off marks on the website or you can download the same in PDF format.
SSC JHT Paper I Cut off 2020
Category Name | Cutoff marks |
---|
General | 140.00 |
OBC | 128.00 |
SC | 116.00 |
ST | 114.00 |
EWS | 110.00 |
OH | 88.00 |
HH | 71.00 |
VH | 73.00 |
Other | 40.00 |
SSC JHT Paper II Cut off 2020
Category Name | SC | ST | OBC | EWS | UR | OH | HH | VH | Others | Total |
---|
Cutoff Marks (Paper I + Paper II) | 230.00 | 221.75 | 235.75 | 178.75 | 254.50 | 174.75 | 119.00 | 156.50 | 229.75 | - |
Candidates Available | 156 | 49 | 461 | 121 | 235* | 35 | 05 | 07 | 01 | 1070 |
Vacancies
SSC JHT Vacancy 2022
The SSC JHT 2022 vacancies shall be declared once the official SSC JHT notification 2022 is released by SSC.
Last year, SSC has released 283 posts as per below structure:
Post Name | Total Vacancies |
---|
Junior Translator/ Junior Hindi Translator | 275 |
Senior Hindi Translator | 8 |
Total | 283 |
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MAHENDRA GURU